This is a question I received and my response.
QUESTION-
"I wanted to get your opinion on something. I
recently watched a clip of Graham Oppy talking about the Kalam
Cosmological argument. He says that when you pose God as a solution you
are adding a new “substance” or “thing” or assumption to the argument.
So since we know the universe exists it’s simpler to say that the
universe is the necessary cause. Now the clip I saw was taken from
another video so I don’t get the whole context. But basically, how would
you respond to someone saying it’s best to assume a unknown
naturalistic cause for the universe (even if it’s a universe before
ours) verses God creating it?"
RESPONSE-
Josh,
I know you said you really don't have the full context of Graham Oppy's
comments so it's a little difficult to be sure I'm addressing his
point. If his point was that positing God as the cause of the universe
is not justified simply because God is not part of the universe...well
that is essentially saying it's not justified to say the universe has a
cause. But, that's the entire point of the Kalam argument! So I'm not
sure that is what he was driving at but if so, it's begging the
question. If on the other hand, his point was that by introducing God as
a supernatural cause one is introducing a more complex solution thus
violating Ockham's razor, then I would say it only violates Ockham's
principle if positing a cause within the universe makes sense. I believe
we can say no, it does not make sense. For it to make sense we have to
posit that the universe is the cause of itself which is patently
nonsensical! Again, such a proposal actually runs contrary to the Kalam
argument. Premise 2 of the argument states, "the universe began to
exist". Thus P2 precludes the idea that the universe itself is necessary
or eternal. Rather, unless one can defeat P2 of the argument, the
conclusion (C1) follows logically and necessarily. One cannot say P1 is
true and P2 is true yet claim the universe is necessary or eternal! If
P1 and P2 are true, the universe is clearly not eternal and therefore
must have a cause. The current scientific consensus is that P1 and P2
are true. But what about your explicit question?
You asked, "...how
would you respond to someone saying it’s best to assume a unknown
naturalistic cause for the universe (even if it’s a universe before
ours) verses God creating it?" My first response would be
derived from what I explained above, the whole point of the Kalam
argument is to present the logical, inescapable conclusion from P1 and
P2. You cannot assume an unknown naturalist cause for the universe if
you agree to P2 because a naturalistic cause means a cause that is of
nature which by definition is within the universe! And, P2 is the
scientific consensus so one would need to provide a defeater for that
premise. In your question, you introduce a potential defeater which is
the multiverse theory. Nevertheless, my first response to someone who
objects that a naturalistic cause is best is to say, the universe cannot
cause itself. The idea of self-cause is nonsensical.
But
what about the "multiverse" theory to which you refer when you say,
"even if it's a universe before ours"? There are various permutations of
the multiverse idea but suffice it to say none have gained consensus,
all are highly speculative, and anything but simple as an alternative to
divine causation! To propose a multiverse construct to explain the
existence of our universe certainly doesn't qualify as a simpler
solution. The *only* thing that it might possibly "buy" the objector
over a Divine causation solution is that it could be called
"naturalistic". So, if one is operating from a naturalistic
presupposition, it will be more appealing. However, the multiverse
theories are so speculative I think a case can be made they are more in
the realm of metaphysics than in the realm of physics. But, even
assuming they are squarely in the realm of physics a multiverse theory
really just begs the question. Where did the multiverse come from?!
Unless one can demonstrate with more probability than P2 (which enjoys
current scientific consensus) that the multiverse is necessary/eternal,
then one must also posit a cause to the multiverse. Thus the multiverse
fails as an ultimate cause for the universe.
The
genius of the Kalam argument (beyond being most aligned to the
empirical evidence of course) is that its conclusion is logically inescapable
if P1 and P2 are true. P1 is virtually undisputed and P2 enjoys current
scientific consensus. Further, the logic leads to additional
conclusions that are very difficult to dispute leading to specifically a
Divine cause. This of course is why many go to such extreme speculative
measures to propose a naturalistic cause. Building upon C1 we can say,
(C2) the cause must be outside the universe, i.e. independent from the
universe in order to be a cause of the universe, (C3) and if the cause
is "prior" to the universe, i.e. no time and space yet existed, the
cause must be timeless and spaceless, and (C4) the cause must be
immensely powerful, with (C5) immense intelligence to have caused a
universe of such amazing fine-tuning to support life, and finally (C6)
the cause must be personal to best explain the act of causing "prior" to
time itself because that implies a decision and a decision implies a
mind. So as we can see, many subsequent conclusions flow from C1 of the
Kalam argument. This expands the scope and explanatory power of the
argument helping to establish it as a superior or more plausible
explanation for the universe than a purely naturalistic explanation.
Josh, I hope this helps. God bless you!
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