Sunday, August 2, 2020

God and Morality - The Divine Command Theory

This is a question I received and my response.

QUESTION-

"As I understand it, you are a defender of the Divine Command Theory, that is, the idea that morality comes from what God commands. I heard an argument against said theory that I can't seem to get around. I would like to know your thoughts. The argument stems from the fact that there are verse in the Bible where god commands evil things. For example, in Deuteronomy chapter 13 verses 13-16 he says "that troublemakers have arisen among you and have led the people of their town astray, saying, “Let us go and worship other gods” (gods you have not known), then you must inquire, probe and investigate it thoroughly. And if it is true and it has been proved that this detestable thing has been done among you, you must certainly put to the sword all who live in that town. You must destroy it completely, both its people and its livestock. You are to gather all the plunder of the town into the middle of the public square and completely burn the town and all its plunder as a whole burnt offering to the Lord your God. That town is to remain a ruin forever, never to be rebuilt" In that verse, God commands the slaughter and total destruction of a town because they do not believe in God, and he says to do this "as a... offering to the Lord" This verse as well as other verses would certainly offend our moral sensibilities. The argument, then, is that because of this verse and others like it you can not get morality from the Bible. Let me explain. When confronted with this kind of verse, one has two options. One is that that kind of verse is not an expression of God's will, and one that it is. If we go with the former option, that it isn't an expression of God's will, then it's impossible to extract any value from the Bible as a moral document because we are simply choosing which verses are God's will and which aren't subjectively, and if we can do that the Bible stops being morally useful. What is stopping someone from using only the Bible verse we think of as evil and constructing a moral theory around that. If we still want to hold on to the idea that morality comes from the Bible, one must say that the verse I cited and others like it are an expression of God's will. That leaves us with two more options, either that the verse I cited and others like it are moral, and that they are not moral. If we choose the former option, then we are degrading the entire concept of morality into simply what God commands. God could command anything and it would still be moral under this view, thus making the entire concept meaningless. If we choose the latter option, than what good is a moral theory if it produce immoral outcomes? Why would any chose to get their morality from said source? I'd like to hear your thoughts on the argument. It seems inescapable to me, but I don't know if I'm missing something. Thanks! Sincerely, -Matt"

RESPONSE-

Matthew, this is a good question and one which Dr. William Lane Craig deals with extensively. I will include a couple of reference links at the end of my answer for your further consideration. To begin let's review the Divine Command theory basis for morality to make sure we are on a level set regarding the claim. On Divine Command theory, moral values are derived from the *nature* of God who, as the greatest conceivable being, is the sum, definition, and ground of all moral values. By this, we mean that our values regarding good and evil, right and wrong, are derived from and grounded in, God's very nature. Moral duties refer to our obligations to act and behave in ways consistent with our moral values. These duties are derived from the commands of God, that in turn are grounded in and flow from his nature. So, in summary, our moral values are grounded in God's nature and our moral duties are derived from God's commands, and God's commands are grounded in and flow from his nature.

From that understanding of Divine Command theory, we can draw one important conclusion that is relevant to your question. Namely, that God cannot command something inconsistent with his nature, otherwise he would cease to be the greatest conceivable being and the supreme good thus undermining his own essential nature. Therefore, God's commands are consistent with his nature. So if we properly understand his commands we can be assured that those commands are consistent with his nature as the supreme good and ground of our moral values. But, clearly, this does not mean that your or my, or any other particular person's sense of what is moral, will agree with God's definition! When we consider a command that God gives, such as the command found in Deuteronomy you referenced in your question, we should rightly ask, "Is this a true and accurate representation of God's command?" If it is a true representation of God's command, then it is morally right whether you agree with it or not! That is the essence of the Divine Command theory. God is the definition of morality and from his character/nature, he commands. We are imperfect, limited, conflicted, and impure in our natures and understanding thus a very flawed moral agent. But as you noted this leaves us with some interesting, perhaps troubling, options in the face of such commands that offend our moral sensibilities. But my point here is to remember our moral sensibilities are flawed and corrupt! They exist, as reflections of our Creator and definition of moral values and duties to be sure, but our sensibilities are by definition *ours* and therefore limited and flawed.

Remembering the above, let's tackle the potentially troubling options you mention. It is certainly possible that the Bible is not presenting a true and accurate representation of God's command. But, as you note that would certainly open up some difficulties hermeneutically. But those difficulties can be addressed by proper hermeneutic principles and techniques to include textual criticism, for example, that might enable us to determine the passage in question had been corrupted over time. Manuscript evidence might show an alternate reading that resolves or relieves some of the issues. These types of tools are required to get an accurate reading and understanding of the text throughout scripture so this is not any form of "special pleading" it is simply the appropriate way to handle any ancient text in order to derive an accurate reading and understanding of the text. But, this is not our only option regarding the reading of the text. The text may be giving a perfectly true and accurate recounting of God's command but simply not providing all of the background details that would put the command in an adequate context for a modern reader to properly understand. This I believe to be the case in the passage you mentioned and the other similar passages to which you allude. This explanation assumes that there are adequate reasons and context details that would make a command to kill people morally acceptable. Dr. Craig deals with this in his explanation regarding the "slaughter of the Canaanites" to which I include a reference at the end of my answer. For example, would we consider it morally just to kill another human being to defend ourselves or a loved one? Would we consider it morally right, to kill in the case where an enraged man was beating a baby and the only way to save the baby was to kill the man? Was killing justifiable to stop the Nazis? It is clear that, given sufficient justifying details of context, the act of killing other humans can be morally justifiable. Therefore, the command from God to kill could certainly be justifiable. Consider further that God is omniscient. As much as you or I might know about a situation, God knows *all* about a situation! He not only knows all current facts but also knows the hearts of each individual completely. He also knows what free choices each person would make given any future situation (middle knowledge) and what future situations those people will encounter, and he knows all this perfectly. So, if God is the very definition of goodness, mercy, justice, love, etc then when he commands he is commanding in perfect consistency with those attributes of his nature, and he is commanding with the perfect knowledge of the entire context. While we cannot possibly have the full context in a few verses of scripture, God has absolutely perfect knowledge of the context and of all hearts and minds involved.

In light of the above, we do not have to choose between, God is giving immoral commands, or scripture is flawed in its representation of God's commands. Rather, scripture is providing an accurate, but necessarily limited, description of the context in which the Divine command is given. Were we to know and understand *all* factors that God knows, we would find sufficient justification for the command to be morally acceptable. Now, to refer back to a previous point, that does not mean you will agree! As we both know, there are people who would say there is never any justification to kill another human being. They believe capital punishment is immoral. They believe self-defense is immoral. But that is their subjective moral position that is clearly not in alignment with God's revealed nature and commands. His justice and even mercy dictate that in certain cases it is justifiable to kill. Individual human beings can have their moral sensibilities troubled by the perfect moral nature of God!

Hopefully, this helps Matthew. Please see the two below references for what Dr. Craig has to say about these issues. God bless you!

https://www.reasonablefaith.org/writings/question-answer/slaughter-of-the-canaanites

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